Firstly i would just like to thank everyone for this wonderful software. You are making my life so much easier. I find myself spending more time on manager and i love it.
Secondly, i would also just like to say that i am no computer and defnitly no program boffin. Sometimes i search for answers, only to get coding advise or some very lengthy conversation. I am more of a “visual learner” so the long explanations is not for me… so im gona ask my question/dilema/issue. If this was explained already, please accept my apology.
For bank payments on invoices:
Why do a bank payment for a specific invoice, firstly clear a previous oustanding invoice? The issue i have with this is the reconciliation nightmare it creates.
First of all, it tells you it is a payment received on a specific day, but when you go to the bank, you dont find such a payment. Or, there will be to receipts amounts but no such amount in the bank.
It also makes it impossible for me to pinpoint which invoice is still outstanding or which invoice were paid incorrectly.
I have a customer that i issue invoices to every week. At one point they paid less than they should. Instead of keeping that invoice as outstanding, it marked it as fully paid when they did the next payment. That means that i cant send them that invoice, advising them that, that invoice is stil due, because it shows as fully paid.
I just want a amount to be linked to a invoice. If it is short, then it should reflect so and not use the next amount to clear the short payment.
Hope im expressing myself clearly…
For anyone to fully understand your issue(s) correctly, you need to post screen shots of edit screens for relevant transactions showing the sequence of events.
However, it sounds like you have two issues:
Depending on where you are looking in the program, Manager may show the issue date of an invoice or the clearance date. When automatic allocations are made, the clearance date may be one you never entered. Screen shots are essential for understanding which you are referring to.
For receipts to be applied to specific invoices, you must designate the invoice number. Otherwise, Manager allocates to the invoice with the oldest due date that is still unpaid.
I understand you need to see the issue. I will make screen prints once im back at my desk top.
If a invoice is ZAR20,000.00 and client pays ZAR18,000 you can allocate the funds to a invoice, but it does not mean its for that invoice. So you can actually allocate the funds to that invoice.
The next invoice is issued. It is ZAR10,000.00, they pay ZAR10,000.00.
Manager will allocate ZAR2000 to the ZAR20,000 that were short paid and allocate the rest to the rest to the latest invoice.
The ZAR20,000.00 shows as settled, but in the mean time, it is not.
If you sent the ZAR10,000.00 invoice to the client, telling them that there are still ZAR2,000.00 oustanding on the invoice, they will say they did pay it.
Which they did, but not the full amount on the previous invoice.
But i will try to explain it with exsamples…