I have a strange problem with the new sales invoices I issue.
I have never allocated customer payments to specific invoices, but
rather just allocated them to the customer account directly.
If a client asks an amount outstanding I just send them the statement.
See here the processing of the receipt from the client:
Now if a client overpaid me it shows on the invoice as bellow:
The only problem is above date is the first payment is received from the client back in 27/03/2013,
and the actual date he overpaid me was only from December 2018.
I hope I do not have to link all 200 invoices to their respective payment, because
that would take forever.
Is there a work around or is my processing incorrect.
I appreciate your feedback.
Regards.
It is impossible to answer your question accurately without seeing the entire history of this customer. But to begin, what version number of Manager are you using? (A recent change was made that might—repeat, might—affect this.) So be sure you are up to date.
Beyond that, what does the register for this invoice show if you drill down on the balance due under the Sales Invoices tab?
Hi, Tut. Thank you for replying.
I am using the cloud version (19.1.30)
The drilldown is as follows:
The credit of R 168.00 was due to over payments made on the following dates:
03/12/2018 84.00 {received more than amount invoiced}
03/01/2019 84.00 {received more than amount invoiced}
I am still not sure why the date on my initial post is the first receipt
I have received from the client in March 2013. Surely that had to
be sorted already {Why is it specifically linked to this invoice?}
Sorry for the fragments of information. Let me know if you require
any more.
This is still confusing. Clearly, what you see is related to the fact you are not designating receipts for specific invoices. That is always the safest choice, as it eliminates the possibility of rolling, automatic allocations. I think you’re going to have to produce a customer statement showing all transactions for this customer and analyze that. Since you haven’t been designating invoices, you might have a situation where you made an adjustment on another invoice that results in a credit that then gets applied on this invoice.
Hi, @Tut. I know it is confusing.
A month ago I did not have any issues with receipts on invoices. Not sure if @lubos made a few changes in this regard.
I know the receipts should be designated to specific invoices.
The issue that I have is then the bank rules are obsolete, because bank rules will never know to
which invoice the payment should be designated to. I allocate all receipt of a certain customer
to that customers account via bank rules. I don’t have time to go through 1000 invoices a month to allocate each payment to an invoice. Much easier to let the bank rules do it’s job. Plus the system still says invoice number is “Optional”.
Shouldn’t an invoice be an invoice. If the client paid to much the statements will reflect this.
What I am trying to say is could the receipts be removed from the invoices? Or at least the date of receipt?
@rhey, let me be as clear as I can. Your practice of leaving the invoice number blank and allowing Manager to allocate automatically to the oldest due date invoice is absolutely acceptable. Invoice numbers are, as you pointed out, optional. The reason I said it was always safer to designate invoices is because it constrains the program and makes troubleshooting easier if there is a problem like yours. Your situation—using bank rules—is one where it is not practical to designate invoices. But there are consequences of your decision to do things this way that you must accept. When you have a problem, there is little alternative to tracing a customer’s balance from some known starting point through a potentially long string of transactions.
As for your desire that receipts not be shown, understand that dozens (perhaps hundreds) of users demanded that they should be, so that feature was added. Removing it would only hide problems like you are encountering. Your trouble does not come from showing receipts on an invoice, but from some other transaction entry. And there is no way to find it except to laboriously examine the customer’s account history. Personally, I don’t see why the mini-statement should cause problems. If the customer has no credit with you, there will not be anything there when a new invoice is created. If they do, the credit application is clearly shown, with a reduced balance due. How can anyone object to that?
Hi, Tut. I agree.
Rather do it right in the first place.
I will have to link all payments to invoives
for me not to have this problem in the future.
Thank you for your feedback .
It is much appreciated.
Regards
