Thanks for your reply.
No its not, that -10 has absolutely nothing to do with the bank, but it has everything to do with the Accounts Receivable. If the bank receipt is 90 and that is applied to the Accounts Receivable 100 then its the Accounts Receivable itself that has a remaining balance of 10. Therefore you Credit the Accounts Receivable 10 and Debit the Withholding tax 10 to transfer that balance, which is done via the second line of the Receive Money instead of creating a separate transaction.
I agree with this logic, but in terms of the function, (receive cash function) the first line is receivable, in the example we put in receive cash 100, and then how much of the receivable that relates to as 100 as well. So the receivable is totally cleared in the first line alone.
The second line is for Withholding Tax, and as this is a receive cash function. -10 means receive cash -10.
In reality yes agree that the receivable was not fully received so the -10 is against the receivable. I was talking in terms of function.
JPTrades:
My business model is that which my customers sell my products - so when they sell them, they deduct the withholding tax from my percentage of the sales value
Therefore it appears that the WHT relates to their payment to you (their supplier), which is calculated from the sales to their customer. In another words, in lieu of you submitting a Sales (commission) Invoice or a Purchase Invoice in their terms.
Therefore in answer to your question "Is the withholding tax really only recognised on payment from the customer and not when the sale was created? - Yes, because the obligation to withhold the WHT doesn’t occur until they raise that remittance, as they haven’t receive a Purchase Invoice (do you mean sales invoice from me here? or are you saying purchase invoice from their customers?) to trigger the WHT earlier then that.
JPTrades:
The method I was using before where I deduct it on the invoice moves it to withholding tax receivable as a credit.
No it didn’t and it can’t. You may have had the WHT account set up under Liabilities but the WHT could never be a credit. For the moment lets assume you raised the invoice without any WHT.
The entry would be - Debit Accounts Receivable 100 and Credit Commission Income 100.
Now if we show the WHT deduction on that invoice then we Debit Accounts Receivable 90 (as that’s the money we are going to receive) Credit Commission Income 100 (as the income value doesn’t change) and Debit WHT 10 to balance the transaction.
Besides when you say “withholding tax receivable” that word “receivable” implies Debit (owed to you), the word “payables” implies Credit (owed by you)
Very true, my mistake.
JPTrades:
also how can the withholding tax balance be cleared to an equity account? If it’s a debit balance and equity accounts are on the credit side.
Once again you are mixing up unrelated terminology - debit “balance” and credit “side”
- balance is the value within the account, side relates to where a account sits with regards to the “=” sign within the equation: A = L - E.
- equity accounts being on the credit side can receive both debit & credit entries and can also have debit balances - the Drawings account is always a debit balanced Equity (credit side) account.
Makes sense, again my mistake.
JPTrades:
Unless it’s moved to offset the tax liability account?
The point is, if the WHT is an allowable offset against other tax liabilities then you don’t have to move it at all, when you process the tax payment (or tax refund) just allocate an entry to the WHT account. Using the figures from earlier the Spend Money would be:
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The WHT -10 will put a credit entry into the WHT account and clear the debit entry (balance) create by the Receive Money. Also, by doing it this way means that you don’t have to use manual journals.
Perfect! Makes a lot of sense. Spend money function, the opposite of how the WHT account balance was created reversing it out.
JPTrades:
The revenue is recognised at the invoice date.
But the WHT is recognised when the cash is received, which in some cases can be in a different tax year.
The question is, why create an invoice - if your invoice is based upon “that’s the way it’s shown on the sales report” then just recognise the income based on the cash received date.
If you were invoicing in advance that would be okay but it appears that you are invoicing in arrears, after you have been told what you are going to receive.
I considered this, but wouldn’t that make this more of a cash based business instead of accruals basis?
Also, I raise the sales invoice to create the receivables account so I can keep track of what is due. In some cases I do not receive the full amount and have to chase for payment. If I didn’t have these invoices it would be hard to keep track of what is overdue etc.
JPTrades:
This means the WHT in some cases is recognised in a different tax year.
That is known as timing differences - no big issues
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Are timing differences perfectly acceptable? I guess from your explanation that the WHT is not actually deducted from the payment until my customers make payment, so in this case that would make it perfectly accurate.
Thank you for all of your help. I really appreciate it.